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Problem #8

Question: prove (from the definition of a limit of a sequence) that if the sequence {an}n=1 tends to limit L as n, then for any fixed number M>0, the sequence {Man}n=1 tends to the limit ML.


Claim: if the sequence {an}n=1 tends to limit L as n, then for any fixed number M>0, the sequence {Man}n=1 tends to the limit ML.
Proof: let's write the formal definition of the claim. Any fixed number M>0 given, also we know the fact that limxan=L and based on it we should proof that (\forall \epsilon > 0)(\exists n \in {N})(\forall m \geq n)[|Ma_m - ML| < \epsilon]. By the definition of limit, \lim \limits_{x\to \infty}a_n can be written as
(\forall \epsilon > 0)(\exists n \in {N})(\forall m \geq n)[|a_m - L| < \epsilon]
and, as it works for all \epsilon > 0, it works for \frac {\epsilon}{M} and there is exists n \in {N} such that
(\forall m \geq n)[|a_m - L| < \frac {\epsilon}{M}]
then, if we multiply both parts of inequality to M,
(\forall m \geq n)[M|a_m - L| < \epsilon]
and, by algebra,
(\forall m \geq n)[|Ma_m - ML| < \epsilon]
and it means that whenever an arbitrary \epsilon > 0 is given, there is exists n \in {N} such that (\forall m \geq n)[|Ma_m - ML| < \epsilon] and that prove the claim. \blacksquare